SSC MTS & Havaldar Syllabus & Exam Pattern 2026
Every topic matched to the official PDF Official notice, ssc.gov.in
Official syllabus PDF ssc.gov.inSSC MTS and Havaldar is one examination for two Pay Level-1 posts: Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff, a Group 'C' post across central government ministries, departments, offices and statutory bodies, and Havaldar in the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and the Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) under the Department of Revenue. Both need a Matriculation pass and nothing more. The written stage is a single computer-based examination held in two sessions on the same day, and Havaldar candidates then face a Physical Efficiency Test and a Physical Standard Test — the walking, height, chest and weight standards printed further down this page. The one thing worth fixing in your head before you plan a single week: Session-I only decides whether your Session-II paper is evaluated at all, and the merit list is drawn from Session-II alone.
Exam Pattern
| Subject | Session and part | Questions | Marks | Negative marking | Time |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Numerical and Mathematical Ability | Session-I, Part I | 20 | 60 | None | 45 minutes for the whole of Session-I |
| Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving | Session-I, Part II | 20 | 60 | None | 45 minutes for the whole of Session-I |
| General Awareness | Session-II, Part I | 25 | 75 | 1 mark for each wrong answer | 45 minutes for the whole of Session-II |
| English Language and Comprehension | Session-II, Part II | 25 | 75 | 1 mark for each wrong answer | 45 minutes for the whole of Session-II |
Three rules from the notice decide how you should sit this paper. First, the penalty is not the same in the two sessions — nothing is deducted in Session-I, and a full mark goes for every wrong answer in Session-II (§14.5.5). So leave nothing blank in Session-I, and in Session-II answer only what you can defend. Second, you must clear BOTH sessions separately: 30% for UR, 25% for OBC and EWS, 20% for every other category (§18.3) — a strong Session-II cannot rescue a failed Session-I, because Session-II is not even looked at until Session-I is qualified (§18.2). Third, the ranking itself comes only from normalized Session-II scores (§14.5.6, §18.6, §18.11). For Havaldar there is one more gate: candidates are called for PET/PST in a 1:7 ratio to vacancies on Session-II performance (§18.7), and failing the physical test does not end your candidature — your CBE merit still counts for MTS (§18.8).
Full Syllabus
1 Numerical and Mathematical Ability — Session-I, Part I (20 questions, 60 marks) 20 Q
Session-I lasts 45 minutes for both its parts together (60 minutes for candidates eligible for a scribe under para 8), and nothing is deducted for a wrong answer here (§14.5, §14.5.2, §14.5.5). The notice lists the following and closes the list with 'etc.' (§14.6.1).
| What the syllabus lists | What it means and how to prepare |
|---|---|
| Integers and Whole Numbers | Where every other topic in this part starts. Get comfortable with signs and the number line first. |
| LCM and HCF | Learn the prime-factor method once; it answers both, and it answers them faster than division does. |
| Decimals and Fractions | Converting one into the other without writing anything down is what saves you time in the exam. |
| Relationship between numbers | Questions that ask how two numbers stand to each other — bigger, smaller, a factor, a multiple. |
| Fundamental Arithmetic Operations and BODMAS | The order of operations. Most mistakes here are not mathematical, they are order mistakes. |
| Percentage | The single most reusable idea in this part — interest, profit and discount are all this one thing. |
| Ratio and Proportions | Dividing a quantity in a given ratio, and spotting when two ratios are equal. |
| Work and Time | Work out one person's one-day work first; almost every question in this row opens after that. |
| Direct and inverse Proportions | Decide first whether the answer should go up or down. Half the marks here are lost on that decision. |
| Averages | Total divided by count, and the reverse — given the average, find the total. |
| Simple Interest | One formula, three questions: find the interest, the rate, or the time. Learn to rearrange it. |
| Profit and Loss | Always work the percentage on the cost price unless the question says otherwise. |
| Discount | Discount comes off the marked price, profit is measured on the cost price — mixing the two is the usual trap. |
| Area and Perimeter of Basic Geometric Figures | Square, rectangle, triangle and circle. With four formulas memorised these are the fastest marks in the paper. |
| Distance and Time | Speed questions. Convert the units before you calculate, not after — km/h and m/s are not interchangeable. |
| Lines and Angles | Parallel lines cut by a transversal, and the pairs of angles that makes. |
| Interpretation of simple Graphs and Data | Less calculation than it looks. Read the axis labels and the units before you touch the numbers. |
| Square and Square roots | Memorise the squares up to 30. It turns several questions elsewhere in this part into one-line answers. |
2 Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving — Session-I, Part II (20 questions, 60 marks) 20 Q
The notice says this part is meant to measure general learning ability, and names the following (§14.6.2). Same session, so again no negative marking.
| What the syllabus lists | What it means and how to prepare |
|---|---|
| Alpha-Numeric Series | A run of letters and numbers with one rule hidden in it. Write the letter positions above the letters and the rule usually shows itself. |
| Coding and Decoding | With A=1 to Z=26 memorised, most of these open in seconds instead of minutes. |
| Analogy | Name the relationship in the first pair in words, then look for the pair that carries the same words. |
| Following Directions | Draw it. A rough sketch of the turns is faster and safer than holding them in your head. |
| Similarities and Differences | Find what three of the four share; the fourth is the answer. |
| Jumbling | Words or letters put out of order — put them back. Look for a natural starting point rather than trying every arrangement. |
| Problem Solving and Analysis | Conditions given, a conclusion wanted. A small grid on the rough sheet beats trying to hold four conditions in your head. |
| Non-verbal Reasoning based on diagrams | No words at all — only figures. This one improves purely with practice, so start it early rather than last. |
| Age Calculations | Put the unknown age as x and write the sentence as an equation; the arithmetic afterwards is easy. |
| Calendar and Clock | Odd days for the calendar, the angle between the hands for the clock. Two small methods that cover almost every question here. |
3 General Awareness — Session-II, Part I (25 questions, 75 marks) 25 Q
Session-II deducts one mark for every wrong answer (§14.5.5), so guessing costs here. §14.6.3 also puts a ceiling on the level — its coverage line for this part ends at the 10th Standard, which is why your school books are the right books for it.
| What the syllabus lists | What it means and how to prepare |
|---|---|
| Social Studies — History | School-level history: the main periods, rulers and movements, not research detail. |
| Social Studies — Geography | Rivers, mountains, states and capitals, climate. Maps repay more than lists here. |
| Social Studies — Art and Culture | Dances, festivals, monuments and the states they belong to. |
| Social Studies — Civics | The Constitution, rights and duties, Parliament, the courts. The most predictable part of this section. |
| Social Studies — Economics | School-level economics: what a budget is, what banks do, what inflation means. |
| General Science | Physics, chemistry and biology at Class 10 level. Your school textbooks are the right book for this. |
| Environmental studies | Pollution, conservation, ecosystems and the major environment days and programmes. |
4 English Language and Comprehension — Session-II, Part II (25 questions, 75 marks) 25 Q
The other half of the session that decides your rank, and the one part that stays in English whichever medium you choose (§14.5.4, §14.6.4).
| What the syllabus lists | What it means and how to prepare |
|---|---|
| Basics of the English Language | Everything in this part rests on it, so the notice names it first. |
| Vocabulary | Ten new words a day, written down. It is the cheapest and most reliable method there is. |
| Grammar | Tense, subject-verb agreement, prepositions and articles carry most of the questions. |
| Sentence structure | How the parts of a sentence sit together, which is what error-spotting actually tests. |
| Synonyms | Learn them beside their antonyms, not as a separate list. |
| Antonyms | The same words from the other side. Learning both halves together doubles what one hour buys. |
| Correct usage | Where all of your grammar is actually tested, one sentence at a time. |
| Comprehension — a simple paragraph with questions on it | The answer is inside the paragraph. Add nothing of your own and these are the surest marks in the section. |
5 Posts, eligibility, and how the two sessions actually decide the result
Not syllabus, but the part of the notice that changes how you should study. Every row cites the paragraph it comes from.
| What the syllabus lists | What it means and how to prepare |
|---|---|
| Two posts, one paper: MTS in central ministries, departments, offices and statutory bodies; Havaldar in CBIC and CBN under the Department of Revenue — both at Pay Level-1, Group 'C', non-gazetted, non-ministerial (cover page) | One application, one paper. Which of the two you can be considered for depends on the preferences you fill in, not on a separate exam. |
| Essential educational qualification: passed the Matriculation Examination or equivalent from a recognised Board, on or before the cut-off date (§9.1) | That is the whole educational bar. It is what makes this exam the realistic first target for candidates without a degree. |
| Age on the notice's cut-off date: 18-25 years for MTS; 18-27 years for Havaldar in CBIC and CBN and for a few MTS posts in some departments (§6.1.1, §6.1.2) | Two age groups in one exam, so the same paper is ranked separately for each — check which group your date of birth puts you in before you choose preferences. |
| Both sessions run on the same day and both are mandatory; Session-II starts immediately after Session-I closes (§14.5.1, §14.5.2, §14.5.3) | There is no gap to recover in. Sitting through both sessions back to back, without a break, is itself something to practise for. |
| Minimum qualifying marks, in EACH session: 30% for UR, 25% for OBC and EWS, 20% for all other categories (§18.3) | A bar you have to clear twice. Treat Session-I as pass-or-go-home rather than as marks in the bank. |
| Session-I is evaluated first; Session-II is evaluated only if you qualify Session-I (§18.2) | This is why a good Session-II cannot rescue a weak Session-I — nobody ever opens it. |
| Merit is determined by normalized Session-II scores alone (§14.5.6, §18.6, §18.11) | So General Awareness and English are where your rank is actually made, even though Session-I is the harder gate to lose. |
| Havaldar only: candidates are shortlisted for PET/PST in a 1:7 ratio of vacancies to candidates, on Session-II performance; failing PET/PST does not end the candidature, the CBE merit stays valid for MTS (§18.7, §18.8) | Seven candidates called for every vacancy, and a safety net underneath — the physical test is a filter for Havaldar, not for the whole examination. |
| Language of the paper: English, Hindi and 13 regional languages — but the regional languages cover Session-I and the General Awareness part of Session-II only (§14.2, §14.5.4) | The English part is the English part in every medium. Choosing your own language does not make it easier, so it needs its own preparation. |
| Candidates with 40% or more visual disability get no Maps, Graphs, Diagrams or Statistical Data component in the paper (§14.6.5) | Worth knowing before you spend weeks on data interpretation you will not be asked. |
Havaldar Physical Efficiency Test (PET) — exactly as the notice prints it (§14.7.1)
| Event | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
| Walking | 1600 metres in 15 minutes | 1 km in 20 minutes |
Havaldar Physical Standard Test (PST) — the minimum standards and the relaxations the notice allows (§14.7.3)
| Measurement | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
| Height | 157.5 cm | 152 cm |
| Height — relaxation the notice allows | 5 cm for Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas and members of Scheduled Tribes | 2.5 cm for Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas and members of Scheduled Tribes |
| Chest | 81 cm fully expanded, with a minimum expansion of 5 cm | The notice prescribes no chest standard for women |
| Weight | The notice prescribes no weight standard for men | 48 kg |
| Weight — relaxation the notice allows | Not applicable | 2 kg for Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas and members of Scheduled Tribes |
Exemptions from the PET/PST for candidates with a benchmark disability (§14.7.5)
| Benchmark disability category | Exemption in the PET/PST |
|---|---|
| HH — hard of hearing | No exemption |
| OA — one arm affected | No exemption |
| OL — one leg affected | May be exempted from Walking |
| OAL — one arm and one leg affected | May be exempted from Walking |
| LC — leprosy cured | May be exempted from Walking |
| AAV — acid attack victim | No exemption; but if the acid attack has left an orthopaedic disability of the OA, OL or OAL kind, that category's exemption applies |
| MD — multiple disabilities involving the categories above | The exemptions above for HH, OA, OL, OAL, LC and AAV apply |
How the Havaldar physical stage runs, as the notice states it
| Question | What the notice states |
|---|---|
| Who has to take it at all | Only Havaldar candidates. For MTS the examination is the CBE and nothing else (§14.1). |
| Who gets called | Candidates shortlisted on Session-II performance, in a 1:7 ratio of vacancies to candidates (§18.7). |
| Who conducts it and where | CBIC and CBN conduct it at centres they finalise, and a candidate may be called to any centre in the country (§14.7.4). |
| If a woman candidate is found pregnant | At 12 weeks or more she is declared temporarily unfit, her candidature is held in abeyance and her vacancy kept unfilled; she is re-examined for the PET six weeks after the confinement, on a fitness certificate from a registered medical practitioner (§14.7.2). |
| If you do not clear it | You are out of the running for Havaldar, but your CBE merit still counts for MTS (§18.8). |
Not covered in this pack — where to find it
| The cut-off marks | The notice says cut-offs will be fixed after the examination — CCA-wise and category-wise for Havaldar, and age-group-wise, category-wise and State/UT-wise for MTS (§18.5, §18.7, §18.12). No numbers are printed anywhere in it, and any figure you see before the result is somebody's guess. SSC MTS & Havaldar — all updates for this exam |
|---|---|
| Vacancies and dates for the 2026 cycle | This page is built from the 2025 notice, which printed 1075 tentative Havaldar vacancies (§2.1), left the MTS count to be collected later, and closed its application window on 24-07-2025. Those numbers belong to that cycle. The next cycle's vacancies and dates come with its own notice. SSC MTS & Havaldar — all updates for this exam |
| The 2026 notice itself | Checked on 09-09-2026: SSC's Notice Board carries no Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar Notice of Examination for 2026. The newest full notice is the 2025 one, dated 26-06-2025, and every figure on this page is read off it. When the 2026 notice appears, the two things to re-check first are the scheme in §14.5 and the PET/PST standards in §14.7. Official PDF ↗ |
| The PET/PST dates and the list of centres | Neither is printed. §14.7.4 leaves the centres to CBIC and CBN to finalise, and the dates reach candidates through a separate notice after the CBE result — so watch SSC's Notice Board rather than this notice for them. Official PDF ↗ |
Free practice — 21 questions
Work out the answer yourself first, then tap “Show answer”. Every answer shows the method, not just the letter.
-
In Session I of the SSC MTS & Havaldar Computer-Based Examination (CBE), how many questions are there in total?
- A 20
- B 40
- C 50
- D 90
Exam Pattern (Session I)Show answer
B — 40
Session I has two parts: Numerical and Mathematical Ability (20 questions) and Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving (20 questions). 20 + 20 = 40 questions.
-
What is the total marks allotted for Session I of this exam?
- A 60
- B 90
- C 120
- D 150
Exam Pattern (Session I)Show answer
C — 120
Numerical and Mathematical Ability carries 60 marks and Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving carries 60 marks. 60 + 60 = 120 marks.
-
How many questions are there in Session II of the CBE?
- A 40
- B 45
- C 50
- D 90
Exam Pattern (Session II)Show answer
C — 50
Session II has General Awareness (25 questions) and English Language and Comprehension (25 questions). 25 + 25 = 50 questions.
-
What is the total marks allotted for Session II of this exam?
- A 120
- B 140
- C 150
- D 160
Exam Pattern (Session II)Show answer
C — 150
General Awareness carries 75 marks and English Language and Comprehension carries 75 marks. 75 + 75 = 150 marks.
-
What is the negative marking rule in Session II of SSC MTS & Havaldar?
- A No negative marking
- B 0.5 mark deducted per wrong answer
- C 1 mark deducted per wrong answer
- D 2 marks deducted per wrong answer
Exam Pattern (Session II)Show answer
C — 1 mark deducted per wrong answer
The pattern table states Session II (General Awareness and English) has a negative marking of 1 mark for every wrong answer.
-
In Session I, how many marks is each question worth?
- A 2 marks
- B 3 marks
- C 4 marks
- D 5 marks
Exam Pattern (Session I)Show answer
B — 3 marks
Numerical and Mathematical Ability gives 60 marks for 20 questions: 60 ÷ 20 = 3 marks per question (Reasoning Ability works out the same way: 60 ÷ 20 = 3).
-
How long is each individual session (Session I and Session II) in this CBE?
- A 30 minutes
- B 45 minutes
- C 60 minutes
- D 90 minutes
Exam PatternShow answer
B — 45 minutes
The pattern table lists both Session I and Session II as 45 minutes each.
-
What is the total sitting duration of the full CBE (Session I + Session II combined)?
- A 60 minutes
- B 75 minutes
- C 90 minutes
- D 120 minutes
Exam PatternShow answer
C — 90 minutes
Session I is 45 minutes and Session II is 45 minutes, and both are compulsory. 45 + 45 = 90 minutes.
-
What is the minimum educational qualification required for SSC MTS & Havaldar?
- A Class 8 pass
- B Class 10 pass (Matriculation)
- C Class 12 pass
- D Graduate
Posts and EligibilityShow answer
B — Class 10 pass (Matriculation)
The exam pattern states the eligibility is a pass in Class 10 (Matriculation).
-
Besides the Computer-Based Examination (CBE), what additional test must Havaldar (CBIC & CBN) candidates clear?
- A Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST)
- B An interview
- C A typing test
- D A group discussion
Posts and EligibilityShow answer
A — Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST)
The exam pattern says Havaldar posts additionally require a Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST), which MTS posts do not.
-
Find the HCF (Highest Common Factor) of 18 and 24.
- A 4
- B 6
- C 8
- D 9
LCM and HCFShow answer
B — 6
18 = 2 × 3 × 3 and 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3. The common factors are 2 and 3, so HCF = 2 × 3 = 6.
-
What is 20% of 250?
- A 40
- B 45
- C 50
- D 60
PercentageShow answer
C — 50
20% means 20/100. So 20% of 250 = (20/100) × 250 = 50.
-
Simplify: 12 + 6 ÷ 2 × 3 − 4
- A 15
- B 16
- C 17
- D 19
Fundamental Arithmetic Operations and BODMASShow answer
C — 17
By BODMAS, division and multiplication are done left to right before addition/subtraction: 6 ÷ 2 = 3, then 3 × 3 = 9. So the expression becomes 12 + 9 − 4 = 17.
-
Find the Simple Interest on Rs 2,000 at 5% per annum for 3 years.
- A Rs 200
- B Rs 250
- C Rs 300
- D Rs 350
Simple InterestShow answer
C — Rs 300
Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100 = (2000 × 5 × 3) / 100 = Rs 300.
-
A man buys an article for Rs 400 and sells it for Rs 460. Find his profit percentage.
- A 10%
- B 12%
- C 15%
- D 20%
Profit and LossShow answer
C — 15%
Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price = 460 − 400 = 60. Profit% = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100 = (60/400) × 100 = 15%.
-
Find the area of a rectangle whose length is 12 cm and breadth is 5 cm.
- A 17 sq cm
- B 34 sq cm
- C 60 sq cm
- D 85 sq cm
Area and Perimeter of Basic Geometric FiguresShow answer
C — 60 sq cm
Area of a rectangle = length × breadth = 12 × 5 = 60 sq cm. (34 sq cm would be the perimeter, 2 × (12+5) = 34 — not what was asked.)
-
A train covers a distance of 180 km in 3 hours. Find its speed.
- A 50 km/h
- B 55 km/h
- C 60 km/h
- D 65 km/h
Distance and TimeShow answer
C — 60 km/h
Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 180 ÷ 3 = 60 km/h.
-
If CAT is coded as DBU (every letter is shifted one step forward in the alphabet), how will DOG be coded using the same rule?
- A EPH
- B DPH
- C EPI
- D FPH
Coding and DecodingShow answer
A — EPH
Each letter moves one step forward: C→D, A→B, T→U gives DBU. Applying the same rule to DOG: D→E, O→P, G→H gives EPH.
-
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the daughter of my mother's only son." How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
- A His daughter
- B His sister
- C His niece
- D His cousin
Problem Solving and AnalysisShow answer
A — His daughter
"My mother's only son" is the man himself, since he is his mother's only son. So the girl is the daughter of the man himself — his own daughter.
-
In a row of 30 students, Ravi is 12th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?
- A 17th
- B 18th
- C 19th
- D 20th
Problem Solving and AnalysisShow answer
C — 19th
Position from the right = (Total students − Position from left) + 1 = (30 − 12) + 1 = 19th.
-
Spot the part with the grammatical error: "She don't like tea in the morning."
- A "She"
- B "don't like"
- C "tea in"
- D "the morning"
Correct usageShow answer
B — "don't like"
"She" is third-person singular, so the verb form must agree with it: it should be "doesn't like", not "don't like". This is a subject-verb agreement error.
These questions are built from the official pattern and syllabus on this page. Every answer was independently re-solved before it was published.
FAQ — Your Questions, Answered
Where is the official syllabus published?
ssc.gov.in
How many questions come from Numerical and Mathematical Ability?
20
How many questions come from Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving?
20
How many questions come from General Awareness?
25
How many questions come from English Language and Comprehension?
25
The cut-off marks — where do I find this?
The notice says cut-offs will be fixed after the examination — CCA-wise and category-wise for Havaldar, and age-group-wise, category-wise and State/UT-wise for MTS (§18.5, §18.7, §18.12). No numbers are printed anywhere in it, and any figure you see before the result is somebody's guess.
Vacancies and dates for the 2026 cycle — where do I find this?
This page is built from the 2025 notice, which printed 1075 tentative Havaldar vacancies (§2.1), left the MTS count to be collected later, and closed its application window on 24-07-2025. Those numbers belong to that cycle. The next cycle's vacancies and dates come with its own notice.
The 2026 notice itself — where do I find this?
Checked on 09-09-2026: SSC's Notice Board carries no Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar Notice of Examination for 2026. The newest full notice is the 2025 one, dated 26-06-2025, and every figure on this page is read off it. When the 2026 notice appears, the two things to re-check first are the scheme in §14.5 and the PET/PST standards in §14.7.
Every figure on this page — the four rows of the pattern table, each syllabus term, the qualifying percentages and the Havaldar PET/PST standards — is read off that notice, and the paragraph it comes from is printed beside it. SSC had not published a 2026 notice for this examination as of 09-09-2026, so this is the current one: SSC — Notice of Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar (CBIC & CBN) Examination, 2025 (F.No. E/15/2025-C-2, uploaded 26-06-2025, 87 pages) ↗
This exam recruits at these levels: 10th Pass
Note — Always confirm the syllabus and pattern against that year's official notification — changes are possible.
Official source: https://ssc.gov.in/api/attachment/uploads/masterData/NoticeBoards/Notice_of_adv_mts_2025.pdf